This quote from John Howard in an interview with Laurie Oakes on Sunday says more than intended:
"The old idea that big companies only gave to the Liberal Party is no longer the case. Many of them don’t give at all now, which I think is a shame because they are affected by government policy."
The context was in reference to a proposal by workplace relations Minister, Kevin Andrews, to legislate against unions making political donations without their members consent. But clearly such a proposal would require a similar consent from shareholders for corporate donations, as pointed out by Crikey today.
None of this is particularly intriguing, however the inference and/or implied fact of Howard's statement places the lid of Pandora's box slightly ajar!
Why does Howard find it a shame that large corporations no longer make substantial political donations given, as he states, that they are "affected by government policy"? I think he is doing more than just stating the obvious. Howard is unoubtedly saying that corporations should donate if they want a say in policy.
What else could he possibly mean?
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